I am currently living in Canada for the purpose of study, but my permanent place of residence is between Jeddah and Amman. When I stayed in Amman during the summer break, I decided to go to Jeddah to deal with some official papers, and I intended to do ‘umrah if Allah made that possible for me and if I had a mahram and enough time to do ‘umrah. I intended to do ‘umrah from Jeddah because my mahram would be there. But because I was not certain that I would be able to do ‘umrah, on the day I travelled by plane I did not do ghusl, because I was menstruating and I had not yet decided to do ‘umrah. When I got there on the second day I did ghusl and formed the intention to do ‘umrah from Jeddah, and I did it.
My questions are:
Is my ihram from the miqaat of Jeddah considered valid or not?  Because of my family circumstances, we are always moving back and forth between Jeddah and Amman, and we always enter ihram from our house in Jeddah, even if we are on our way back from a trip to Amman and after staying in Jeddah for several days. We do not remember how many times we have done ‘umrah in this manner.
What is required of us if we should have entered ihram from the miqaat for the people of ash-Shaam (Greater Syria)? After I did ‘umrah I was uncertain as to whether I was completely clean following my period. If I think it most likely that I was still menstruating whilst I was doing ‘umrah, what is the ruling on my ‘umrah and what expiation do I have to offer?.

Perhaps my question has been asked many times before. It is about mortgages in non-Muslim countries. We live in a western society and we live in rented accommodation so as to avoid riba. Recently we found out that there are no houses for rent, and 96% of the market is based on mortgages. All houses are offered for sale only. Some of them told me that in this situation it is permissible for me to  buy a house by means of a mortgage and, moreover, it is possible to get the mortgage in the name of family insurance, so that the individual does not pay riba or a mortgage; rather it is paid by the insurance. Is it permissible to get a mortgage in the name of the family insurance, in such a way that you and other trustees or borrowers are not dealing directly with the bank and the lawyer takes care of dealing with the mortgage on your behalf?
I hope that you can advise me as to whether that is permissible or not.

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