I am a muslim by birth and I recently got married to a girl who had reverted to Islam. i am from india and many muslims here are very backward in their practices etc.. She was continously asking me questions about my relatives and why muslims are so backward etc.. I lost my temper and I am ashamed to say that in my anger I told her that I was sorry that I was a muslim. I immediately realised my mistake but I said what I said. I am terribly ashamed of myself for saying such a thing. Does this make me a apostate (kafir). I am a muslim and i truly believe in islam in all its glory. I am ashamed and sorry for what I said. Am i a kafir. Do i have to say the shahadah again? Is my nikah nullified as she is still a muslim. Do i have to do the nikah again. Please answer at the earliest. I am really sorry for beingsuch a bad muslim.

Is it permissible to read Qur'aan while a women is having mensus (periods)?

A non-Muslim friend of mine asked how I could prove the existence of God and why He has given us life, and what its purpose is?
My answer did not satisfy him, please tell me what I should tell him?

A girl noticed some thin discharge on her underwear but she had not felt it come out. Is it permissible for her to pray with her underwear on which this discharge has gotten? If it is not permissible, then does she have to repeat her wudoo’ and change her underwear?.

I would like to know if it's okay if i didn't make wudu after taking a bath???

I have a serious problem when purifying myself from major impurity, because I purify myself with a little water, then I wipe myself sometimes 21 times and sometimes more than that, yet I still see traces, which makes me purify myself again with water. Hence I spend a long time in the washroom in order to cleanse myself, which has damanged my health. What is your opinion? Is there a specific number of times for wiping oneself in order to become pure?.

Perhaps my question has been asked many times before. It is about mortgages in non-Muslim countries. We live in a western society and we live in rented accommodation so as to avoid riba. Recently we found out that there are no houses for rent, and 96% of the market is based on mortgages. All houses are offered for sale only. Some of them told me that in this situation it is permissible for me to  buy a house by means of a mortgage and, moreover, it is possible to get the mortgage in the name of family insurance, so that the individual does not pay riba or a mortgage; rather it is paid by the insurance. Is it permissible to get a mortgage in the name of the family insurance, in such a way that you and other trustees or borrowers are not dealing directly with the bank and the lawyer takes care of dealing with the mortgage on your behalf?
I hope that you can advise me as to whether that is permissible or not.

How should we call people to Islam?

What is the definition of gheebah and what is the ruling on it?

I want to know about ‘Umrah in detail.

Is it true that anyone who does not accept that kuffaar are kuffaar is a kaafir himself, even if he prays, believes in the Qur'aan, and the Prophet Muhammad? If so, what is the proof for this? Can a person insist on believing that Jews and Christians can be believers and go to heaven after being shown clear evidence against this, and still be considered a Muslim?